Legitimate question - why is the diarrhea rate higher in the 72 than the 145? I know that in the PI the 145 is listed at 16% but then in the trials conducted for the 72, the 72 had 19% and the 145 had 22%. I asked this question a million times and nobody at the company can provide a straight answer as to how to explain this to physicians. Is the diarrhea rate not dose dependent?